UNION EXECUTIVE MCQs FOR UPSC/APPSC/TGPSC.

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1. Consider the following statements regarding the election of the President of India:

1. The election is conducted in accordance with proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.
2. The voting is done by open ballot to ensure transparency.
3. Nominated members of Parliament do not participate in the election.
4. Members of State Legislative Councils are part of the electoral college.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 1, 2 and 3 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: A

 Explanation:

• Statement 1  Correct (STV system)
• Statement 2  Wrong → Voting is secret ballot, not open
• Statement 3  Correct
• Statement 4  Wrong → MLCs do NOT participate

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2. With reference to the value of votes in Presidential election, consider the following:

1. Value of vote of an MLA varies from state to state.
2. Value of vote of an MP is fixed and equal for all MPs.
3. Value of vote of MP depends on total value of votes of MLAs.
4. Population considered is based on latest census.

Which are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

 Explanation:

4 Wrong → Based on 1971 Census .

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3. Consider the following statements regarding impeachment of the President:

1. It can be initiated only in Lok Sabha.
2. Charges must be signed by at least 1/4th of members.
3. A 14-day notice must be given.
4. Supreme Court plays a role in impeachment process.

Which are correct?

A. 2 and 3 only

B. 1, 2 and 3 only

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

D. 1 and 4 only

Answer: A

 Explanation:

• 1  Either House can initiate
• 2 Yes (25% support needed)
• 3  Correct
• 4  No role of Supreme Court

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4. Consider the following about President’s veto powers:

1. Pocket veto has no time limit.
2. Suspensive veto can be used for Money Bills.
3. Absolute veto can be used in case of private member bills.
4. President is bound to give assent after reconsideration.

Which are correct?

A. 1, 3 and 4 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

 Explanation:

• 1  True
• 2  No veto over Money Bill
• 3  True
• 4  Must give assent

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5. Consider the following statements regarding ordinance making power:

1. Ordinance can be issued only when both Houses are not in session.
2. Ordinance has same force as law passed by Parliament.
3. It must be approved within 6 weeks of reassembly.
4. Ordinance can amend Constitution.

Which are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 2 and 4 only

C. 1, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

 Explanation:

• 4  Cannot amend Constitution

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6. Consider the following statements about pardoning power:

1. President can pardon death sentence.
2. Governor also can pardon death sentence.
3. President acts on advice of Council of Ministers.
4. Pardoning power is judicial in nature.

Which are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 1, 2 and 3 only

C. 1, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

 Explanation:

• 2  Governor cannot pardon death sentence  
• 4  Executive power

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7. Consider the following regarding National Emergency:

1. Can be declared on grounds of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
2. Requires written advice of Cabinet.
3. All Fundamental Rights are suspended.
4. Approval must be given within 1 month.

Which are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 4 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

 Explanation:

• 3  Article 20 & 21 NOT suspended  

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8. Consider the following statements regarding Vice-President:

1. He is elected by Electoral College including MLAs.
2. He is Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
3. He gets salary as Vice-President.
4. Removal is initiated in Rajya Sabha.

Which are correct?

A. 2 and 4 only

B. 1, 2 and 4 only

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

D. 1 and 3 only

Answer: A

 Explanation:

• 1  Only MPs vote  
• 3  Salary as Chairman  

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9. Consider the following about qualifications of President:

1. Must be citizen of India.
2. Must be member of Parliament.
3. Must be 35 years old.
4. Must not hold office of profit.

Which are correct?

A. 1, 3 and 4 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

D. All

Answer: A

 Explanation:

• 2  Not required to be MP

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10. Consider the following statements:

1. President is part of Parliament.
2. President is real executive head.
3. Prime Minister is de facto executive.
4. President exercises powers independently.

Which are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 and 4 only

C. 1, 2 and 3 only

D. All

Answer: A

 Explanation:

• 2  Nominal head  
• 4  Works on advice

ASSERTION–REASON

·          Directions:

·         A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

C. A is true, R is false

D. A is false, R is true

 

11.

Assertion (A): The President of India is elected indirectly.

Reason (R): The Constitution provides for an electoral college consisting of elected representatives.

Answer: A

Explanation:

• A  True
• R  True
• R correctly explains A

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12.

Assertion (A): Nominated members of Parliament do not participate in the election of the President.

Reason (R): Only elected representatives represent the will of the people.

Answer: A

 Explanation:

• Both correct
• R is the logic behind exclusion

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13.

Assertion (A): The value of vote of an MLA varies from state to state.

Reason (R): The population of each state is different.

Answer: A

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14.

Assertion (A): The value of vote of all MPs is equal.

Reason (R): The value is derived from total value of votes of MLAs.

Answer: B

 Explanation:

• Both true
• But R does NOT directly explain equality

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15.

Assertion (A): The President can exercise pocket veto.

Reason (R): The Constitution does not prescribe any time limit for assent.

Answer: A

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16.

Assertion (A): The President must give assent to a bill if it is passed again by Parliament.

Reason (R): The President has no veto power in India.

Answer: C

 Explanation:

• R (President has veto powers)

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17.

Assertion (A): Ordinances issued by the President have the same force as laws.

Reason (R): Ordinances are issued only when Parliament is not in session.

Answer: B

 Both true but NOT explanation

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18.

Assertion (A): The President can be impeached only for violation of the Constitution.

Reason (R): The Constitution clearly defines what constitutes violation.

Answer: C

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19.

Assertion (A): The Vice-President is elected by both elected and nominated members of Parliament.

Reason (R): The Vice-President is not directly linked to states.

Answer: A

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20.

Assertion (A): The Vice-President does not receive salary as Vice-President.

Reason (R): He is paid for his role as Chairman of Rajya Sabha.

Answer: A

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21.

Assertion (A): The President is part of Parliament.

Reason (R): No bill can become law without President’s assent.

Answer: A

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22.

Assertion (A): The President acts on the advice of Council of Ministers.

Reason (R): India follows parliamentary system.

Answer: A

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23.

Assertion (A): Fundamental Rights under Article 20 and 21 cannot be suspended during Emergency.

Reason (R): These rights are considered basic to human life and liberty.

Answer: A

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24.

Assertion (A): The President appoints the Prime Minister.

Reason (R): The President has discretionary powers in all cases.

Answer: C

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25.

Assertion (A): The President can dissolve Lok Sabha.

Reason (R): The President is the real executive authority.

Answer: C

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26.

Assertion (A): The President can declare Financial Emergency.

Reason (R): India has experienced Financial Emergency before.

Answer: C

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27.

Assertion (A): The impeachment process of President is quasi-judicial.

Reason (R): Both Houses investigate and decide charges.

Answer: A

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28.

Assertion (A): Governor cannot pardon death sentence.

Reason (R): Only President has such power under Article 72.

Answer: A

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29.

Assertion (A): Election of President cannot be challenged after declaration except in Supreme Court.

Reason (R): Supreme Court has exclusive jurisdiction.

Answer: A

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30.

Assertion (A): A person must be qualified to be Lok Sabha member to become President.

Reason (R): President is part of Parliament.

Answer: B

31. Consider the following statements regarding the Attorney General of India (Article 76):

1. He must be qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
2. He holds office for a fixed tenure of 5 years.
3. He has the right to participate in the proceedings of Parliament but cannot vote.
4. He is barred from private legal practice under all circumstances.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 1, 2 and 3 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: A

 Explanation:

• 1 Correct
• 2  No fixed tenure (pleasure of President)
• 3  Correct
• 4  Can do private practice (with restrictions)

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32. Consider the following regarding the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG):

1. CAG is appointed by the President.
2. He holds office during the pleasure of the President.
3. He can be removed in the same manner as a Supreme Court judge.
4. His duty includes ensuring that expenditure is within limits voted by Parliament.

Which are correct?

A. 1, 3 and 4 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

 Explanation:

 

• 2  Not “pleasure” → fixed protection
• 3  Removal like SC judge
• 4  Core function

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33. Consider the following statements regarding Prime Minister:

1. PM is appointed by the President.
2. PM must necessarily be a member of Lok Sabha at the time of appointment.
3. Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to Lok Sabha.
4. If PM resigns, entire Council of Ministers resigns.

Which are correct?

A. 1, 3 and 4 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

D. All

Answer: A

 Explanation:

• 2  Can be from RS or even outsider (6 months rule)

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34. Consider the following statements regarding Rajya Sabha:

1. It is a permanent House and cannot be dissolved.
2. One-third of its members retire every two years.
3. Nominated members can vote in Presidential election.
4. Vice-President is ex-officio Chairman.

Which are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 4 only

B. 1, 3 and 4 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All

Answer: A

 Explanation:

• 3  Nominated members cannot vote  

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35. Consider the following statements regarding Lok Sabha:

1. Maximum strength is 552.
2. Anglo-Indian nomination still exists.
3. Tenure is 5 years unless dissolved earlier.
4. Speaker is appointed by the President.

Which are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 1, 2 and 3 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. All

Answer: A

 Explanation:

• 2 Removed (104th Amendment)  
• 4 Speaker elected by LS

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36. Consider the following about Money Bills:

1. Can be introduced only in Lok Sabha.
2. Requires recommendation of President.
3. Rajya Sabha can reject the Bill.
4. Speaker certifies whether a bill is Money Bill.

Which are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 4 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All

Answer: A

 Explanation:

• 3  RS cannot reject → only delay

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37. Consider the following statements regarding Financial Bills:

1. All Financial Bills are Money Bills.
2. Financial Bills require President’s recommendation.
3. They can be introduced only in Lok Sabha.
4. They must be passed by both Houses.

Which are correct?

A. 2, 3 and 4 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1, 3 and 4 only

D. All

Answer: A

 Explanation:

• 1  Not all financial bills are money bills

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38. Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional Amendment Bills:

1. Can be introduced in either House.
2. Requires prior approval of President.
3. Must be passed by special majority.
4. President must give assent.

Which are correct?

A. 1, 3 and 4 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 4 only

D. All

Answer: A

 Explanation:

• 2  No prior approval needed  
• 4 (mandatory assent)

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39. Consider the following regarding Joint Sitting:

1. Called by the President.
2. Presided over by Speaker of Lok Sabha.
3. Applicable for Money Bills.
4. Applicable for Constitutional Amendment Bills.

Which are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1, 2 and 3 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. All

Answer: A

 Explanation:

• 3  Not for Money Bill
• 4  Not for Constitutional Amendment

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40. Consider the following statements regarding Parliamentary sessions:

1. Maximum gap between sessions is 6 months.
2. Parliament must meet at least twice a year.
3. Adjournment ends a session.
4. Prorogation ends a session.

Which are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 4 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All

Answer: A

 

41. Consider the following statements regarding the Attorney General of India:

1. He has the right to speak in both Houses of Parliament.
2. He enjoys all privileges of a Member of Parliament.
3. He can vote in Parliamentary proceedings.
4. He is a full-time government servant.

Which of the above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1, 2 and 3 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

 Explanation:

• 1  Can speak
• 2  Privileges like MP
• 3 No voting right
• 4 Not full-time (can do private practice)

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42. Consider the following statements regarding CAG:

1. CAG audits accounts of Union only.
2. CAG submits reports to President and Governors.
3. CAG ensures money is spent legally and properly.
4. CAG is part of Executive.

Which are correct?

A. 2 and 3 only

B. 1, 2 and 3 only

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

D. All

Answer: A

 Explanation:

• 1  Audits Union + States
• 4  Independent authority

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13. Consider the following regarding Council of Ministers:

1. Ministers hold office during pleasure of President.
2. Collective responsibility is towards Rajya Sabha.
3. Individual responsibility exists.
4. Council ceases if PM resigns.

Which are correct?

A. 1, 3 and 4 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

D. All

Answer: A

 Explanation:

• 2  Responsible to Lok Sabha  

 

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44. Consider the following regarding Prime Minister:

1. He is “Primus Inter Pares”.
2. He allocates portfolios to ministers.
3. He can be removed only by impeachment.
4. He advises President regarding appointments.

Which are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 4 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All

Answer: A

 Explanation:

• 3 No impeachment (only President)  

 

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45. Consider the following statements regarding Rajya Sabha:

1. Maximum strength is 250.
2. It represents States equally.
3. Members are elected by proportional representation.
4. It can initiate removal of Vice-President.

Which are correct?

A. 1, 3 and 4 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All

Answer: A

 Explanation:

• 2 Representation NOT equal (based on population)

 

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46. Consider the following regarding Lok Sabha Speaker:

1. Speaker is elected by Lok Sabha.
2. Speaker presides over joint sitting.
3. Speaker decides Money Bill status.
4. Speaker is appointed by President.

Which are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 4 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All

Answer: A

• 4  Not appointed

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47. Consider the following statements regarding quorum:

1. It is 1/10th of total strength.
2. Includes presiding officer.
3. Lok Sabha quorum is 50 members.
4. Rajya Sabha quorum is 25 members.

Which are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 4 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All

Answer: A

 Explanation:

• 3  LS = 55 (not 50)

For detailed notes, see Back Notes. Stay tuned for updates.

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48. Consider the following statements regarding Ordinary Bills:

1. Can be introduced in either House.
2. Requires President recommendation.
3. Passed by simple majority.
4. Joint sitting possible.

Which are correct?

A. 1, 3 and 4 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All

Answer: A

 Explanation:

• 2 No recommendation needed

 

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49. Consider the following regarding Money Bills:

1. Speaker’s decision is final.
2. Rajya Sabha must pass within 14 days.
3. President can return Money Bill.
4. Can be introduced only after President recommendation.

Which are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 4 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. All

Answer: A

 Explanation:

• 3 Cannot return

 

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50. Consider the following regarding Parliamentary control over Executive:

1. Parliament controls finance.
2. Parliament can remove Council of Ministers.
3. Rajya Sabha alone can remove government.
4. No-confidence motion is used.

Which are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 4 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All

Answer: A

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51. Consider the following regarding prorogation and adjournment:

1. Adjournment ends a sitting.
2. Prorogation ends a session.
3. Adjournment done by President.
4. Prorogation done by President.

Which are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 4 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All

Answer: A

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52. Consider the following statements regarding types of majority:

1. Simple majority excludes abstentions.
2. Absolute majority includes total strength.
3. Effective majority excludes vacancies.
4. Special majority always means 2/3rd of total strength.

Which are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 4 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All

Answer: A

 Explanation:

• 4  Special majority varies

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53. Consider the following regarding Constitutional Amendment:

1. Can be introduced without President recommendation.
2. Joint sitting allowed.
3. Requires special majority.
4. President must give assent.

Which are correct?

A. 1, 3 and 4 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All

Answer: A

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54. Consider the following regarding sessions of Parliament:

1. Budget session is longest.
2. Winter session is shortest.
3. Parliament must meet thrice a year.
4. Gap cannot exceed 6 months.

Which are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 4 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All

Answer: A

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55. Consider the following statements:

1. A person can be minister without being MP.
2. He must become MP within 6 months.
3. He can remain minister even after 6 months without membership.
4. He can be from either House.

Which are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 4 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All

Answer: A

56. Consider the following statements regarding Vote on Account (Art. 116):

1. It allows withdrawal from Consolidated Fund before Budget is passed.
2. It is discussed in detail in Parliament.
3. It is passed only by Lok Sabha.
4. It is a temporary arrangement.

Which are correct?

A. 1, 3 and 4 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All

Answer: A

 Explanation:

• 2  No discussion
• 3  RS has no role

 

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57. Consider the following regarding Question Hour:

1. It is the first hour of sitting.
2. Supplementary questions allowed in starred questions.
3. Unstarred questions are answered orally.
4. Short notice questions require less than 10 days notice.

Which are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 4 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All

Answer: A

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58. Consider the following statements about Zero Hour:

1. It is mentioned in the Constitution.
2. It starts at 12 noon.
3. It allows raising issues without prior notice.
4. It was introduced in 1962.

Which are correct?

A. 2, 3 and 4 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1, 3 and 4 only

D. All

Answer: A

 Explanation:

• 1  Not in Constitution

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59. Consider the following regarding Adjournment Motion:

1. It is used to discuss urgent public matters.
2. It requires support of 50 members.
3. It can be introduced in Rajya Sabha.
4. It interrupts normal business.

Which are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 4 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All

Answer: A

 Explanation:

• 3  Only Lok Sabha

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60. Consider the following about Cut Motions:

1. Policy Cut reduces demand to Re.1
2. Economic Cut reduces by specific amount
3. Token Cut reduces by Rs.100
4. Cut motions are introduced in Rajya Sabha

Which are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 4 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All

Answer: A

 Explanation:

• 4  Only Lok Sabha

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61. Consider the following regarding Guillotine:

1. It involves detailed discussion on all demands.
2. It allows passing demands without discussion.
3. It is used in Lok Sabha.
4. It applies to all Bills.

Which are correct?

A. 2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 4 only

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

D. All

Answer: A

 Explanation:

• 1 Opposite
• 4 Only budget demands

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62. Consider the following regarding Parliamentary Committees:

1. Standing committees are permanent.
2. Adhoc committees are temporary.
3. Ministers can be members of financial committees.
4. Committees ensure detailed scrutiny.

Which are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 4 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All

Answer: A

 Explanation:

• 3  Ministers NOT allowed

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63. Consider the following regarding Estimates Committee:

1. It has 30 members.
2. All members are from Lok Sabha.
3. It examines expenditure efficiency.
4. It includes members from Rajya Sabha.

Which are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 4 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All

Answer: A

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64. Consider the following regarding Public Accounts Committee (PAC):

1. It examines CAG reports.
2. It has members from both Houses.
3. Chairman is always from ruling party.
4. Ministers cannot be members.

Which are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 4 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All

Answer: A

 Explanation:

• 3  Chairman from opposition (since 1967)

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65. Consider the following regarding Committee on Public Undertakings:

1. It examines functioning of PSUs.
2. It consists of 22 members.
3. Ministers can be members.
4. It examines CAG reports.

Which are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 4 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All

Answer: A

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66. Consider the following regarding Rules Committee:

1. Speaker is ex-officio Chairman in Lok Sabha.
2. It deals with conduct of business.
3. It has equal members in both Houses.
4. Chairman in RS is Vice-President.

Which are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 4 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All

Answer: A

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67. Consider the following regarding UPSC:

1. Members appointed by President.
2. Tenure is 6 years or 65 years.
3. Conditions of service can be changed anytime.
4. It advises government on recruitment.

Which are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 4 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All

Answer: A

 Explanation:

• 3  Cannot be changed to disadvantage

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68. Consider the following regarding SSC:

1. It is a constitutional body.
2. It was established in 1975.
3. It works under Government control.
4. It recruits Group B & C posts.

Which are correct?

A. 2, 3 and 4 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All

Answer: A

Explanation:

• 1  Not constitutional

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69. Consider the following regarding Constitutional Amendments:

1. 42nd Amendment is called Mini Constitution.
2. 44th Amendment restored some rights.
3. 52nd Amendment introduced Anti-defection law.
4. 61st Amendment increased voting age.

Which are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 1, 3 and 4 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. All

Answer: A

 Explanation:

• 4  It REDUCED voting age to 18

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70. Consider the following regarding recent Amendments:

1. 101st Amendment introduced GST.
2. 102nd Amendment deals with NCBC.
3. 103rd Amendment provides EWS reservation.
4. 104th Amendment continued Anglo-Indian nomination.

Which are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 4 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All

Answer: A

 Explanation:

• 4 It REMOVED Anglo-Indian nomination